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From: Peter Fogg (no email)
Date: Fri Nov 05 2004 - 02:40:07 EST
If I am the only person who hasn't grasped the nature of the objection below
then I beg indulgence, but since I am interested in the subject, could
Herbert try to make more clear just what he means? I have been delving into
texts on regression but still fail to grasp just what the nature of the
objection is.
What really perplexes me is that it seems such a simple concept: a given
slope and data points that can be compared with it. Why does it need to get
more complicated than that? (leaving aside the non-linearity issue)
Herbert Prinz wrote:
...that the
average of the average of two data sets equals, in general, the average
of the union set of the two data sets?
This is, to wit, in simplified form, the question which is at the basis
of my most important objection to the method of averaging individual
"runs" of sights...
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